meredith48034
meredith48034 meredith48034
  • 19-02-2020
  • Mathematics
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Please assist me in 6-30​

Please assist me in 630 class=

Respuesta :

Аноним Аноним
  • 19-02-2020

Answer:

Yes to both.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is true that

[tex]\dfrac{x}{y}=1 \iff x=y[/tex]

In fact, if you know that x/y=1, just multiply both sides by y to get x=y. On the other hand, if you know that x=y (and they are not zero), you can divide both sides by y to get x/y=1.

Since the two expressions are equivalent, you can always use Phil's or Don's expression, at will.

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