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17-03-2020
Mathematics

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Is 40(2x-16y) equivalent to 42-56y

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abiolatolu90 abiolatolu90

17-03-2020

Answer:

No, 40(2x - 16y) is not equivalent to 42 - 56y

Step-by-step explanation:

40(2x -16y)

If we expand the above expression, we will have

80x - 16y which is not equivalent to 42 - 56y

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